Thiago Martins had a knee scope procedure, according to New York City FC. The club announced that the 28-year-old center-back is expected to return to training in six to eight weeks. That means he might not see action again until late August, during the final third of the season.
The official press release announcing the procedure is light on details. It doesn’t explain what was addressed by the procedure, or when it took place. This is entirely in character for the club, which tend to be tight-lipped about injuries and rehab.
RELATED: Tayvon Gray suspended by MLS
Thiago Martins suffered what appeared to be a knee strain in the humbling 1-3 loss to Philadelphia Union at Citi Field on May 27. The defender made a clumsy challenge to Philadelphia striker Julián Carranza. Thiago Martins immediately left the game with what turned out to be a substantial injury. Philadelphia went on to convert the penalty.
You can watch the play here:
Thiago Martins is one of NYCFC’s three Designated Players, and is the highest-paid player in the club. He started every game this season until this knee injury sidelined him before the May 31 match against FC Cincinnati at Yankee Stadium.
RELATED: City Football Group out of touch with NYCFC’s frustrations
Here is the full statement issued by NYCFC earlier today:
Today New York City Football Club (NYCFC) announced that Defender Thiago Martins has undergone a left knee scope procedure.
The Brazilian defender will begin rehab immediately and is expected to make a full recovery and return to training in six to eight weeks.
Everyone at the Club wishes Thiago all the best during his recovery.
